Is the PMP exam hard to pass?

It is demanding. The reported format is 180 questions in 240 minutes, and every domain includes agile and hybrid scenarios where more than one answer looks reasonable. The hard part is usually choosing the best action, not recalling a definition, so practice questions matter more than rereading.

Can I pass PMP in 3 months?

Three months can be enough if you study steadily and your work already covers both predictive and agile projects. Use the first weeks for the content outline, the middle for practice questions by domain and the last weeks for full-length timed exams. If your full-exam scores are still unstable, move the date.

What is the best practice exam for the PMP exam?

Start with PMI’s official practice materials, because they come from the organization that writes the exam. Add a full-length timed simulator so you practice 180 questions in one sitting. Short quizzes like the one on this page are best for finding weak topics between full exams.

Can I use AI to pass the PMP exam?

AI can turn your own study material into practice questions and flashcards, which helps you review faster. It cannot replace official practice materials, and it does not give you real exam questions. Use it to drill your weak topics, then check yourself with full-length practice exams.

How many questions are on the PMP exam in 2026?

Prep providers report 180 questions, of which 170 are scored, in 240 minutes. The 10 unscored questions are reported to be pretest items that are not identified on screen. Confirm the format on pmi.org before booking.

If a project's Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is 0.85, what does this indicate about its schedule performance?

The project is behind schedule.

The project is exactly on schedule.

The SPI cannot determine schedule performance.

The project is ahead of schedule.

What is the difference between a contingency reserve and a management reserve in terms of what they cover?

Contingency reserve covers identified risks ('known unknowns'), while management reserve covers unforeseen work within scope ('unknown unknowns').

Contingency reserve covers unforeseen work within scope, while management reserve covers identified risks.

Contingency reserve covers approved scope changes, while management reserve covers identified risks.

Both reserves cover identified risks, but contingency is controlled by the project manager and management reserve by senior management.

If a project manager decides to 'transfer' a risk, what is the most accurate outcome of this strategy?

The ownership and impact of the risk are shifted to another party.

The project manager assumes full responsibility for managing the risk.

The risk is completely eliminated from the project.

The probability of the risk occurring is significantly reduced.

Which of the following is a key characteristic of a servant leader?

Coaching and facilitating team decision-making.

Focusing on command and control to ensure compliance.

Directing the team on how to solve problems.

Assigning tasks to each team member every day.

A team member suggests a new feature that was not part of the original plan. In an agile project, how is this typically handled?

It is added to the Product Backlog for prioritization by the Product Owner.

It is immediately rejected as it's outside the current Sprint scope.

It requires a formal change control board approval like in predictive projects.

The Scrum Master decides whether to include it.

The scope baseline for a project includes which three key components?

Scope Statement, WBS, WBS Dictionary

Project Charter, Business Case, Scope Statement

Scope Statement, Risk Register, Stakeholder Register

WBS, WBS Dictionary, Project Schedule

What is the key difference between 'Control Quality' and 'Validate Scope'?

Control Quality checks for correctness; Validate Scope obtains customer acceptance.

Control Quality obtains customer acceptance; Validate Scope checks for correctness.

Control Quality is for predictive projects; Validate Scope is for agile projects.

Control Quality is done by the customer; Validate Scope is done by the team.

Which statement about velocity in agile teams is accurate?

It is not a performance measure for comparing teams but can be used for forecasting by a single team.

It measures the number of hours each team member works per iteration.

It is a key performance indicator used to compare the efficiency of different teams.

It is a measure of the team's productivity and should be maximized at all costs.

What is a critical step that must be obtained before formally closing a project?

Obtain formal acceptance of the deliverables.

Finalize all outstanding change requests.

Release all project resources immediately.

Conduct a post-project performance review.

PMP practice exam: 30 free questions for the 2026 exam

MindLumos Team·October 19, 2026·18 min

This free PMP practice exam has 30 questions with explained answers, covering the three domains of the 2026 content outline: People, Process and Business Environment. Below it are 30 flashcards, the earned value formulas and a study plan.

What changed in the 2026 PMP exam

The PMP exam is built from an Examination Content Outline (ECO) that lists the domains and their weights. A new outline replaces the one used since January 2, 2021, and prep providers report that the new exam applies from July 9, 2026.

Domain	2021 outline	2026 outline (reported)	Change
People	42%	33%	−9 points
Process	50%	41%	−9 points
Business Environment	8%	26%	+18 points

The headline change is Business Environment, which more than triples and now also carries change control and risk. Process is still the largest domain. The approach mix is reported to move to roughly 40% predictive and 60% agile or hybrid, spread across all three domains rather than tested on its own.

Format	2021 exam	2026 exam (reported)
Questions	180	180, of which 170 are scored
Time	230 minutes	240 minutes
Unscored items	—	10 pretest questions, not identified on screen

Weights, date and format are as reported by PMI-authorized training partners and prep providers. Confirm them in the official Examination Content Outline on pmi.org before you book, because PMI sets these details and can change them.

30 PMP exam practice questions with answers

The questions cover all three domains: earned value and scheduling, risk and procurement, stakeholders and conflict, Scrum and Kanban, scope and change control. Answer each one first, then open the explanation.

PMP practice questions, 2026 content outline

This quiz was generated with MindLumos from a study guide, then checked by our team. Make one from your own notes →

Score: 0 / 0 · 30

1.According to the reported 2026 Examination Content Outline (ECO), what is the percentage weight for the 'Business Environment' domain on the PMP exam?
Answer and explanation
C. 26% — The reported 2026 Examination Content Outline (ECO) indicates a significant shift in domain weights. The Business Environment domain now accounts for 26% of the exam, a substantial increase from its previous weight.
2.A project has a Budget at Completion (BAC) of $100,000. At a certain point, the Planned Value (PV) is $40,000, the Earned Value (EV) is $35,000, and the Actual Cost (AC) is $45,000. What is the Cost Variance (CV)?
Answer and explanation
B. -$10,000 — Cost Variance (CV) is calculated as Earned Value (EV) minus Actual Cost (AC). In this case, CV = $35,000 - $45,000 = -$10,000. A negative CV indicates the project is over budget.
3.If a project's Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is 0.85, what does this indicate about its schedule performance?
Answer and explanation
C. The project is behind schedule. — An SPI below 1 means the project is behind schedule. SPI = EV / PV, so an SPI of 0.85 means only 85% of the work planned to date (in value terms) has actually been completed.
4.A project has a BAC of $200,000 and a CPI of 0.8. If the current performance is expected to continue, what is the typical Estimate at Completion (EAC)?
Answer and explanation
A. $250,000 — The typical EAC formula when current performance is expected to continue is EAC = BAC / CPI. Therefore, EAC = $200,000 / 0.8 = $250,000.
5.What is the difference between a contingency reserve and a management reserve in terms of what they cover?
Answer and explanation
A. Contingency reserve covers identified risks ('known unknowns'), while management reserve covers unforeseen work within scope ('unknown unknowns'). — Contingency reserves are set aside for identified risks ('known unknowns') and are part of the cost baseline. Management reserves are for unforeseen work within scope ('unknown unknowns') and are added to the cost baseline to form the project budget.
6.A project manager identifies a threat with a 70% probability of occurring and a cost impact of $50,000. What is the Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of this risk?
Answer and explanation
D. −$35,000 — EMV = probability × impact. Threats carry negative impacts, so EMV = 0.70 × (−$50,000) = −$35,000.
7.Which risk response strategy for a threat involves taking action to reduce the probability or impact of the risk?
Answer and explanation
C. Mitigate — Mitigating a risk involves taking proactive steps to reduce its probability or impact. Avoiding a risk means eliminating the threat entirely, transferring shifts ownership, and accepting means acknowledging it without action.
8.If a project manager decides to 'transfer' a risk, what is the most accurate outcome of this strategy?
Answer and explanation
D. The ownership and impact of the risk are shifted to another party. — Transferring a risk does not eliminate it; rather, it shifts the ownership and potential impact of the risk to a third party, such as through insurance or outsourcing.
9.In a Firm Fixed Price (FFP) contract, who bears the majority of the cost risk?
Answer and explanation
A. The seller — In a Firm Fixed Price (FFP) contract, the seller agrees to a set price for a defined scope of work. This structure places the majority of the cost risk on the seller, as they are responsible for completing the work within the agreed-upon price.
10.In a RACI chart, which role is ultimately responsible for ensuring the work is completed and owns the result of an activity?
Answer and explanation
B. Accountable — In a RACI chart, the 'Accountable' role signifies the individual who owns the outcome of the activity and has the authority to approve the work. While the 'Responsible' party does the work, the 'Accountable' party is the ultimate owner.
11.A stakeholder has high power and high interest in a project. According to the power/interest grid, what is the recommended engagement strategy?
Answer and explanation
D. Manage closely — Stakeholders with high power and high interest require close management. This means engaging them fully, understanding their needs, and ensuring their continued support and involvement throughout the project.
12.The salience model for stakeholder analysis classifies stakeholders based on which three attributes?
Answer and explanation
C. Power, Urgency, and Legitimacy — The salience model assesses stakeholders based on three key attributes: power (their ability to impose their will), urgency (the need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (the appropriateness of their involvement).
13.A team grows from 10 to 15 people. How many communication channels are added?
Answer and explanation
D. 60 — Channels = n(n − 1) / 2. With 10 people: 10 × 9 / 2 = 45. With 15 people: 15 × 14 / 2 = 105. The team gains 105 − 45 = 60 channels, an increase of about 133%.
14.In an agile project, which two constraints are typically fixed while scope varies?
Answer and explanation
B. Cost and Time — In agile projects, the iteration length (time) and the team composition (cost, assuming a stable team) are generally fixed. Scope is then allowed to vary, with the highest-value items being prioritized and delivered first.
15.A project involves building a physical hardware component using a traditional, plan-driven method, while the software embedded within it will be developed using iterative and incremental cycles with frequent feedback. What type of development approach does this represent?
Answer and explanation
B. Hybrid — This scenario describes a hybrid approach, which combines elements of both predictive (for the hardware) and adaptive (for the software) methodologies to leverage the strengths of each.
16.Which of the following is a key characteristic of a servant leader?
Answer and explanation
A. Coaching and facilitating team decision-making. — A core aspect of servant leadership is coaching the team and facilitating their ability to make decisions, empowering them rather than dictating solutions. They also remove obstacles and shield the team from unnecessary interruptions.
17.During which stage of Tuckman's team development model does conflict typically arise as members disagree over roles and approaches?
Answer and explanation
A. Storming — The 'Storming' stage is characterized by disagreements and conflict as team members begin to assert their opinions and challenge existing ideas regarding roles, responsibilities, and project approaches.
18.Which Thomas-Kilmann conflict mode is characterized by high assertiveness and high cooperativeness, aiming for a win-win outcome?
Answer and explanation
A. Collaborating — Collaborating is the conflict mode that involves high assertiveness (pursuing one's own concerns) and high cooperativeness (addressing the other party's concerns), leading to a mutually beneficial, win-win solution.
19.A team member suggests a new feature that was not part of the original plan. In an agile project, how is this typically handled?
Answer and explanation
C. It is added to the Product Backlog for prioritization by the Product Owner. — In agile projects, new requirements or changes are typically added to the Product Backlog. The Product Owner then prioritizes these items based on business value, deciding when or if they will be incorporated into future Sprints.
20.Which document formally authorizes a project and grants the project manager the authority to use organizational resources?
Answer and explanation
A. Project Charter — The project charter, typically issued by the project sponsor, is the formal document that authorizes the existence of a project and empowers the project manager with the necessary authority to lead the project and utilize resources.
21.The scope baseline for a project includes which three key components?
Answer and explanation
C. Scope Statement, WBS, WBS Dictionary — The scope baseline is formally defined by three documents: the approved project scope statement, the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), and the WBS dictionary. These collectively define the project's scope.
22.What is the key difference between 'Control Quality' and 'Validate Scope'?
Answer and explanation
D. Control Quality checks for correctness; Validate Scope obtains customer acceptance. — 'Control Quality' is the process of checking deliverables to ensure they meet specified requirements and are correct (performed by the team). 'Validate Scope' is the process of obtaining formal acceptance of completed deliverables from the customer or sponsor.
23.In the Scrum framework, who is accountable for maximizing the value of the product resulting from the work of the Scrum Team?
Answer and explanation
A. Product Owner — The Product Owner is solely accountable for maximizing the value of the product. This includes owning and ordering the Product Backlog and defining the Product Goal.
24.What is the timebox for a Sprint Review in a one-month Sprint?
Answer and explanation
B. 4 hours — The Sprint Review event, where the Scrum Team and stakeholders inspect the Increment and adapt the Product Backlog, is timeboxed to a maximum of 4 hours for a one-month Sprint.
25.Which statement about velocity in agile teams is accurate?
Answer and explanation
B. It is not a performance measure for comparing teams but can be used for forecasting by a single team. — Velocity is the number of story points a team completes per iteration. It is used for that team's own forecasting and must not be used to compare different teams, because story points are relative to each team.
26.What is a critical step that must be obtained before formally closing a project?
Answer and explanation
C. Obtain formal acceptance of the deliverables. — Obtaining formal acceptance of the project's deliverables from the customer or sponsor is a crucial step before the project can be formally closed. This confirms that the project has met its objectives and requirements.
27.Using the PERT formula, if the Optimistic estimate (O) is 5 days, the Most Likely estimate (M) is 7 days, and the Pessimistic estimate (P) is 14 days, what is the PERT estimate?
Answer and explanation
A. About 7.8 days — PERT (beta) = (O + 4M + P) / 6 = (5 + 4 × 7 + 14) / 6 = 47 / 6 ≈ 7.83 days. About 8.7 days is the triangular estimate (26 / 3), and 7 days is just the most likely value.
28.A project manager needs to estimate the duration of a task where there is high uncertainty. They gather three estimates: Optimistic (O) = 3 days, Most Likely (M) = 5 days, and Pessimistic (P) = 15 days. What is the Triangular estimate for this task?
Answer and explanation
D. About 7.67 days — Triangular = (O + M + P) / 3 = (3 + 5 + 15) / 3 = 23 / 3 ≈ 7.67 days. About 6.3 days is the PERT (beta) estimate, (3 + 4 × 5 + 15) / 6 = 38 / 6; 5 days is the most likely value; 9 days is the midpoint of O and P.
29.Which calculation correctly determines the Total Float for an activity?
Answer and explanation
B. Either LS − ES or LF − EF — Total float can be calculated as LS − ES or LF − EF; both give the same result. EF − ES is simply the activity duration.
30.Little's Law is a queuing theory formula. If a system has an average of 10 items in progress (WIP) and the throughput is 2 items per hour, what is the average cycle time?
Answer and explanation
D. 5 hours — Little's Law states WIP = throughput × cycle time. To find the cycle time, rearrange the formula: Cycle Time = WIP / throughput. In this case, Cycle Time = 10 items / 2 items per hour = 5 hours.

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Questions generated by MindLumos from a PMP study guide written by our editorial team, then reviewed one by one. They are not PMI questions. Use your score to find weak topics, not to predict your exam result.

Earned value formulas: quick reference

Earned value is one topic among many, but the questions are easy points once the formulas are automatic. Variances subtract and indices divide, and both always start with EV.

Measure	Formula	How to read it
Cost variance (CV)	EV − AC	Negative = over budget
Schedule variance (SV)	EV − PV	Negative = behind schedule
Cost performance index (CPI)	EV / AC	Below 1 = over budget
Schedule performance index (SPI)	EV / PV	Below 1 = behind schedule
Estimate at completion (EAC), typical	BAC / CPI	Current cost performance continues
EAC, one-off variance	AC + (BAC − EV)	Remaining work goes as planned
Estimate to complete (ETC)	EAC − AC	Cost of the remaining work
Variance at completion (VAC)	BAC − EAC	Negative = expected overrun
To-complete performance index (TCPI)	(BAC − EV) / (BAC − AC)	Above 1 = remaining work must be more efficient

Worked example: BAC $200,000, PV $80,000, EV $70,000, AC $84,000. CV = −$14,000, SV = −$10,000, CPI ≈ 0.83, so the typical EAC is $240,000.

How to study for the PMP exam

Spread your hours roughly like the reported weights, and expect agile and hybrid scenarios in every domain. The table shows what each domain tests.

Domain (reported weight)	What it tests	What to review
People (33%)	Leading the team and working with stakeholders	Servant leadership, Tuckman stages, conflict modes, power/interest grid, communication channels
Process (41%)	Planning and delivering the work	Scope baseline and WBS, critical path, earned value, quality, contract types, closing
Business Environment (26%)	How the project fits the organization	Governance and success metrics, compliance, integrated change control, risk responses

Take the practice exam cold

Answer all 30 questions without looking at the explanations. Your score tells you which domain to start with.

Review only your mistakes

Read the explanation of every wrong answer and go back to that topic in your study material.

Drill the situational questions

On People questions, the servant-leader answer usually lets the team solve its own problem, with you facilitating. On change questions, analyze impact before anything goes to the change control board.

Learn the vocabulary with flashcards

Use the 30 cards below for the terms that trip candidates up: reserves, risk responses, contract types, Scrum accountabilities.

Finish with full-length timed exams

Before you book, sit full practice exams under exam conditions and check that your score holds across several attempts.

PMP flashcards: 30 key concepts

Try to recall each answer before you reveal it. The cards cover the formulas, reserves, risk responses, contracts, stakeholder models, team development and Scrum.

What are the domain weights for the 2026 PMP exam?

Show answer

As reported by PMI-authorized training partners: People 33%, Process 41% and Business Environment 26% (in the 2021 outline: 42%, 50% and 8%).

What is the formula for Cost Variance (CV)?

Show answer

Cost Variance (CV) is calculated as Earned Value (EV) minus Actual Cost (AC): CV = EV - AC.

What is the formula for Schedule Variance (SV)?

Show answer

Schedule Variance (SV) is calculated as Earned Value (EV) minus Planned Value (PV): SV = EV - PV.

How is the Cost Performance Index (CPI) calculated?

Show answer

The Cost Performance Index (CPI) is calculated by dividing Earned Value (EV) by Actual Cost (AC): CPI = EV / AC.

How is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) calculated?

Show answer

The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is calculated by dividing Earned Value (EV) by Planned Value (PV): SPI = EV / PV.

What is the typical formula for Estimate at Completion (EAC)?

Show answer

The typical formula for Estimate at Completion (EAC) assumes current cost performance will continue: EAC = Budget at Completion (BAC) / CPI.

How is EAC calculated when a variance was a one-off event?

Show answer

When a variance was a one-off event, EAC is calculated as Actual Cost (AC) plus the difference between Budget at Completion (BAC) and Earned Value (EV): EAC = AC + (BAC - EV).

What does contingency reserve cover, and is it part of the cost baseline?

Show answer

Contingency reserve covers identified risks ('known unknowns') and is part of the cost baseline.

What does management reserve cover, and how does it affect the project budget?

Show answer

Management reserve covers unforeseen work within scope ('unknown unknowns'). It is added to the cost baseline to form the project budget.

List the ways threats can be managed in risk management.

Show answer

Threats can be managed by avoiding, transferring, mitigating, accepting, or escalating.

List the ways opportunities can be managed in risk management.

Show answer

Opportunities can be managed by exploiting, sharing, enhancing, accepting, or escalating.

What is the effect of transferring a risk?

Show answer

Transferring a risk moves ownership and impact to another party but does not eliminate the risk itself.

Which contract type places the most cost risk on the seller?

Show answer

Firm Fixed Price (FFP) contracts place the most cost risk on the seller because the price is set for a defined scope.

Who bears most of the cost risk in a Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) contract?

Show answer

The buyer: it pays the seller's allowable costs plus a fixed fee, so cost overruns fall on the buyer. CPFF suits uncertain scope, such as research.

How many 'Accountable' individuals should be assigned to each activity in a RACI chart?

Show answer

Each activity should have exactly one 'Accountable' person.

How are stakeholders classified using the power/interest grid?

Show answer

The power/interest grid classifies stakeholders into four strategies: Manage closely (High Power, High Interest), Keep satisfied (High Power, Low Interest), Keep informed (Low Power, High Interest), and Monitor (Low Power, Low Interest).

What three attributes are used in the salience model for stakeholder classification?

Show answer

The salience model classifies stakeholders using three attributes: power, urgency, and legitimacy.

What is the formula for calculating the number of communication channels in a project?

Show answer

The number of communication channels is calculated using the formula n(n - 1) / 2, where 'n' is the number of people involved.

What are Tuckman's stages of team development in order?

Show answer

Tuckman's stages of team development are Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning.

Describe the Thomas-Kilmann conflict mode of 'Collaborating'.

Show answer

Collaborating is a conflict mode characterized by high assertiveness and high cooperativeness, aiming for a win-win outcome.

Describe the Thomas-Kilmann conflict mode of 'Forcing'.

Show answer

Forcing (competing) is high assertiveness and low cooperativeness: one side wins. It fits emergencies or safety decisions when there is little time.

When are lessons learned typically gathered and archived?

Show answer

Lessons learned are gathered throughout the project and archived at the end of the project or phase.

What is the scope baseline composed of?

Show answer

The scope baseline consists of the approved project scope statement, the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), and the WBS dictionary.

What is the difference between 'Control Quality' and 'Validate Scope'?

Show answer

'Control Quality' checks that deliverables are correct and meet requirements, while 'Validate Scope' obtains formal acceptance of completed deliverables from the customer or sponsor.

Define 'scope creep' and 'gold plating'.

Show answer

Scope creep is the uncontrolled expansion of project scope without adjusting time, cost, and resources. Gold plating is when the team adds extra features or services not requested by the customer.

What are the three accountabilities within a Scrum Team?

Show answer

The three accountabilities in a Scrum Team are the Product Owner, Scrum Master, and Developers.

What is the primary role of the Scrum Master?

Show answer

The Scrum Master is accountable for the team's effectiveness, coaches the team and organization in Scrum, removes impediments, and acts as a servant leader.

Is Backlog Refinement a formal Scrum event?

Show answer

No, Backlog Refinement is an ongoing activity, not a formal Scrum event. It involves breaking down, clarifying, and estimating upcoming Product Backlog items.

What is the PERT (beta) estimate formula?

Show answer

The PERT estimate formula is: (Optimistic + 4 * Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 6.

How is total float calculated in project scheduling?

Show answer

Total float is calculated as Late Start (LS) minus Early Start (ES), or alternatively as Late Finish (LF) minus Early Finish (EF).

Flashcards generated by MindLumos from the same study guide written by our editorial team, and reviewed one by one.

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Frequently asked questions

Is the PMP exam hard to pass?: It is demanding. The reported format is 180 questions in 240 minutes, and every domain includes agile and hybrid scenarios where more than one answer looks reasonable. The hard part is usually choosing the best action, not recalling a definition, so practice questions matter more than rereading.
Can I pass PMP in 3 months?: Three months can be enough if you study steadily and your work already covers both predictive and agile projects. Use the first weeks for the content outline, the middle for practice questions by domain and the last weeks for full-length timed exams. If your full-exam scores are still unstable, move the date.
What is the best practice exam for the PMP exam?: Start with PMI’s official practice materials, because they come from the organization that writes the exam. Add a full-length timed simulator so you practice 180 questions in one sitting. Short quizzes like the one on this page are best for finding weak topics between full exams.
Can I use AI to pass the PMP exam?: AI can turn your own study material into practice questions and flashcards, which helps you review faster. It cannot replace official practice materials, and it does not give you real exam questions. Use it to drill your weak topics, then check yourself with full-length practice exams.
How many questions are on the PMP exam in 2026?: Prep providers report 180 questions, of which 170 are scored, in 240 minutes. The 10 unscored questions are reported to be pretest items that are not identified on screen. Confirm the format on pmi.org before booking.

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